Pratice question sse 202

Pratice question sse 202

1 A task designed to elicit behavior or performance of persons with a view to determine or draw inferences about specific abilities of these persons is referred to as
     a) achievement test
b) measurement
c) evaluation
*d) test

2. The process of using numbers to describe the quantity, quality and frequency according to set of rules could be regarded as
a) scale of measurement
*b) measurement
c) evaluation
d) test

3. In teaching and learning situations, psychologists are concern with two aspects of measurement
a) measures of achievement  and diagnostic
b) measures of intelligence and prognostic
*c) measures of ability and personality
d) measures of aptitude and attitude

4. The third level of measurement is
a) ratio
*b) interval
c) ordinal
d) nominal

5. When objects in the classroom are identified, what scale of measurement is being applied?
a) ratio
b) interval
c) ordinal
*d) nominal

6. The use of clinical thermometer used in the hospitals is a form of
a) ratio
*b) interval
c) ordinal
d) nominal

7. The ages of living things are usually measured from zero, which scale of  measurement can be used?
*a) ratio
b) interval
c) ordinal
d) nominal

8. The collection of information about a child knowledge, skill and attitudes as well as judgment, interpretation and planned action is carrying out 
a) evaluation
b) test
*c) assessment
d) decision

9. Information obtained by the teachers on pupils performance and how such information is interpreted and used for improving teaching and learning process is a…
a) prognostic evaluation
b) summative evaluation
c) diagnostic evaluation
*d) formative evaluation

10. The least uses of evaluation in schools is…
a) it enables to determine the learners' abilities, aptitude or achievement levels. 
*b) used to select suitable candidate for employment.
c) it enables to motivate the learners to put in more effort.
d) it enables to diagnose the causes of the learners learning problems.
11. An instrument designed to assess the level of at which a given content area or task has been mastered after instruction(s), can be described as…
a) intelligence test.
*b) achievement test.
c) personality test.
d) aptitude test.

12. Test that are used to assess emotional development and interest characteristics reaction pattern
  a) intelligence test.
b) achievement test.
*c) personality test.
d) aptitude test.

13. Test designed with uniform administration to a representative sample of testees, has norms for scoring and interpretation could be regarded as
*a) Standardized  test.
b) criterion-reference test.
c) norm-referenced test.
d) group test.

14. Which type of test recognizes recall concepts rather than structure?
a) Essay  test.
b) Teacher-mad test.
c) Achievement test.
*d) Objective test.

15. The statement in an multiple choice test item is referred to as
a) selection.
*b) stem.
c) supply.
d) completion.

16. The predetermine option in an multiple choice question that seems to be correct is
a) selection.
b) right answer.
c) the choice.
*d) key.

17. The options which sound like possible answers to examinees is
*a) distracters.
b) alternatives.
c) answers
d) the choice.

18. One of these is the disadvantage of multiple choice item. 
a) it measures complex learning outcomes.
b) scoring could be done quickly, accurate and easily by the examiners.
*c) difficult to locate a sufficient number of incorrect but plausible distracters.
d) it permits a wider coverage of content and objectives as a result of number of the alternative.

19. One of these is the advantages of multiple choice item.
a) It is always very difficult to locate a sufficient number of incorrect but plausible distracters.
b) It does not measure ability to organize and present ideal.
c) It wastes time of the examiner in setting the questions.
*d) It can be used to diagnose the reason why learners pick incorrect answer.
20. One of the principles for construction of multiple choice items is
a) the number of responses must never be equal.
*b) an item should contain only one correct answer.
c) the list of items to be matched must be brief.
d) the use of the materials that are homogeneous should be used.

21. One of these is an advantage of matching items question.
*a) Large amount of fact could be measured within a short time.
b) It encourages only measurement of factual information that demands rote learning.
c) It is highly susceptible to irrelevant clues. 
d) The generally of important materials that are homogeneous in nature becomes great problem.

22. One of the advantages of essay test is…
a) unrealistic scoring.
b) it has low reliability.
*c) it helps the learners to develop the power of critic.
d) it covers a limited sample of content.

23.  A table which relates the instructional objectives to the content areas and specifies the proportion of questions to be asked on each level of objective and content is…
*a) blue print.
b) one-way grid.
c) two-way grid.
d) no grid.

24. All these are ways to improve essay tests and scoring EXCEPT
a) try to maximize content validity.
b) all examinees should be required to answer the same questions.
c) marking scheme should be prepared before hands.
*d) it economizes answer sheets.

25. The comparative advantage of objective over essay test is EXCEPT
a) The scoring is inconsistent.
*b) It limits examinees responses
c) Insufficient for measuring knowledge of facts.
d) Its preparation is relatively easy.

26. In preparing test items, the following are important EXCEPT
a) The length of the test.
b) the age of the examinees.
*c) Papers needed must be considered
d) The reliability needed for effective test use.

27. Review and editing of test items is good because it…
*a) eliminates unwanted error that may distort the function of the item.
b) makes the scoring easy.
c) makes the examinees respond appropriately.
d) makes the test item content validity.

28. Trial run of test is carried out to know…
a) the length of each test items.
b) the number of items to be included in the test being developed.
c) the number of examinees for the test.
*d) the reliability of the test instrument.

29. Assessment of adequacy of test items based on statistical qualities is to…
a) ascertain the legibility of each item.
*b) the quality of each item.
c) ascertain that the test item covers the ability of the examinees.
d) see the grammatical mistakes of test items.

30. All these are steps used in carrying out item analysis EXCEPT
a) Arrange the scripts, placing the paper with highest score on top.
b) decide percentage of examinees to be used
*c) Arrange the test items in order of difficulties.
d) count the number of examinees in each group.

31. The formula for finding item discriminating is
*(a)  

(b)

(c)

(d)

32. 3-option multiple choice items extract in ECO 321 administered to 40 students in Dept of Economics Education, Better by Far University. The results were analyzed based on the 33% of item analysis. The analysis of their responses to items 7 is shown below  

Item
Options

Key

A
B
C

H
L
H
L
H
L

7
4
15
33
17
3
8
B

Calculate the distractor "A" index of 7th item.
*(a) 0.35
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.64
(d) 0.55

33. 3-option multiple choice items extract in MTG 403 administered to 100 students in the Department of Education Management, Faculty of Education, Better by Far University. The results were analyzed based on the 25% of item analysis. The analysis of their responses to items 15 are shown below. 

Item
Alternative answers

Key

A
B
C

H
L
H
L
H
L

15
52
20
27
49
21
31
A

Calculate the distractor "C" index of the 15th item.
(a) 0.26
(b) 0.60
(c) 0.27
*(d) 0.20

34. An item that is incorrectly answered by the examinees is deducted from the answers correctly scored is determined by...
(a)  

*(b) S= R - 

(c)

(d)

35. A student took a 48 item multiple choice test items in which each item had 5 possible answers (A – E). If he attempted 46 and scored 38 questions correctly and 8 wrongly, what will be his actual score using correction guessing formula?

(a)

(b)

*(c)

(d)

36. The extent to which a particular instrument actually and accurately measures what it purport to measure is
*a) validity.
b) reliability.
c) objectivity.
d) usability.

37. All these are NOT types of content validity EXCEPT
a) Parallel.
b) consistency.
c) Stability.
*d) Predictive.

38. When an instrument measures human traits we said it has 
a) content validity.
*b) construct validity.
c) concurrent validity.
d) Predictive validity.

39. When an instrument measures instructional objectives or curricular method can be referred to as  
*a) content validity.
b) construct validity.
c) concurrent validity.
d) Predictive validity.

40. When an instrument measures future performance on a given task is known as  
a) content validity.
b) construct validity.
c) concurrent validity.
*d) Predictive validity.

41. All these are NOT types of reliability EXCEPT
a) Measures of content.
*b) Measures of stability.
c) Measures of predictive
d) Measures of concurrent.

42. When two equivalent forms of a test are developed and administered separately it is regarded as having…
a) test-retest reliability.
b) equivalence and stability.
*c) parallel form of reliability.
d) internal consistency.

43. The various methods of estimating the internal consistency of an instrument is EXCEPT
*a) Content .
b) Split-half method.
c) Score (judge) reliability.
d) Kuder-Richardson estimate.

44. When a test instrument is convenience to both the examiner and examinees in the hall is said to have potential for 
a) easy administration.
b) interpretability.
c) objectivity.
*d) usability.

45. An examinee test score that is related to an established external standard is referred to as…
a) norm reference.
*b) criterion reference.
c) content reference.
d) summation reference.

46. When a set of data are organized, summarized and tabulated, it is a form of
a) frequency count.
b) inferential statistics.
c) central tendency.
*d) descriptive statistics.

47. Functions of classification of data include EXCEPT
a). It reduces the raw data into manageable sizes.
b). It facilitates meaningful comparisons of data depending on the criteria of classification.
*c). It helps to identify variables among the data.
d). It facilitates further processing of data in research

48. Raw data obtained from the field could be summarized and presented in graphical form or in a pictorial devises with the following EXCEPT
a). cumulative frequency curve;
*b). Harmonic
c). Pie charts
d). Pictogram

49. Statistics are used by the classroom teachers for the following reasons EXCEPT
a) It enables teachers to be more confidence in using different teaching methods
b) It enables teachers to summarize the result of their tests in a meaningful way.
c) It gives room for the most exact kind of description of learning outcomes.
d) It helps teachers to get their work done more quickly and efficiently.

50. Inferential statistics could be sub-divided into…
*a) parametric and non-parametric statistics.
b) graphical and table statistics.
c) mean and median.
d) Pearson Product Moment Correlation and Spearman Ranked Order Correlation.

51. All these are steps used in preparing ungrouped frequency distribution table scores EXCEPT
a) List all scores in column one either in ascending order of or descending order magnitude.
b) Tally each score in groups of five.
*c) Class interval should be used.
d) The number of strokes for each score should be written in column three.

52. The table below shows a practical display frequency distribution for two hundred twenty (220) students' scores in SSE 202 Continuous Assessment test.

Scores

10
IIII II
    7

11
IIII IIII IIII IIII I
   21

13
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII III
   33

15
IIII IIII IIII II
   17

18
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII
   35

19
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII I
   51

20
IIII IIII IIII I
   16

24
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII  III
   28

25
IIII IIII
     9

28
III
     3

What is the name given to column with IIII?
a)   Frequency
b) Scores
c) Distribution
*d) Tally

53. The table below shows a practical display frequency distribution for two hundred twenty (220) students' scores in SSE 202 Continuous Assessment test.

Scores

10
IIII II
    7

11
IIII IIII IIII IIII I
   21

13
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII III
   33

15
IIII IIII IIII II
   17

18
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII
   35

19
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII I
   51

20
IIII IIII IIII I
   16

24
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII  III
   28

25
IIII IIII
     9

28
III
     3

What is the highest frequency score?
a)   3.
*b) 51.
c) 35.
d) 10.
54. These are advantages of arithmetic mean EXCEPT
*a). One or two very large values of the observations may affect the result.
b). It makes use of every value in the data.
c). It is the most stable and widely use of measures of central tendency.
d). It is the value that represents equal sharing of the items in the distribution.

55. The table below shows a practical display frequency distribution for two hundred twenty (220) students' scores in SSE 202 Continuous Assessment test.

Scores

10
IIII II
    7

11
IIII IIII IIII IIII I
   21

13
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII III
   33

15
IIII IIII IIII II
   17

18
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII
   35

19
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII I
   51

20
IIII IIII IIII I
   16

24
IIII IIII IIII IIII IIII  III
   28

25
IIII IIII
     9

28
III
     3

What is the mean score of the distribution?
a)   220.0
b)        2.2.
*c)      22.0
d)      12.0.
56. Find the median of 160, 150, 152, 161, 195 and 180.
a) 220.0
b) 180.0
c) 150.0
*d) 160.5

57. Calculate the median of the following data
Class Interval
40-44
45-49
50-54
55-59
60-64
65-69

Frequency
4
10
20
10
10
6

Where Li =   49.5
N =   60
fb =  14
fw = 20

*a) 53.5
b) 60.0
c) 15.0
d) 16.5
58. The disadvantages of mode include EXCEPT
a). It is not based on all the observations of the series.

*b). It is easy to understand.
c). It is not suitable for further statistical computation.
d). It is not affected to a great extent by the fluctuation of sampling.

59. Find the range in the below data
Class Interval
40-44
45-49
50-54
55-59
60-64
65-69

Frequency
4
10
20
10
10
6

        a) 32.5
b) 21.0
*c) 30.0
d) 16.5
60. Find the mean deviation of the set of scores

X
X -
|X –

41
41-25=    16
16

27
27-25=     2
   2

  9
  9-25=    -6
   6

19
19-25=  -16
16

23
23-25=    -2
   2

31
31-25=     6
   6

25
25-25=     0
   0

28
28-25=    3
   3

15
15-25= -10
10

22
22-25=  -3
   3

35
35-25= 10
10

      = 275
        = 0
   = 74

a) 5.25
*b) 6.73
c) 5.10
d) 6.70
61. Find the variance of the set of scores below

CI
1 -5
6 -10
11 -15
16 -20
21- 25
26 - 30
31- 35
36 -40

F
2
3
5
8
10
7
4
1

Frequency Distribution Table
CI
F
X
FX
    |d|
|X -  
    f|d|
F|X -
     f|d|2
F|X – 2

     1-5
  2
  1 +5/2 =   3
=    6
17.875
2 x 17.875 = 35.75
(35.75) 2  = 1278.06

   6-10
  3
6 +10/2 =   8
=   24
12.875
3 x 12.875 = 38.625
(38.625) 2  = 1491.89

11-15
  5
11+15/2 =13
=   65
  7.875
5 x 7.875 = 39.375
(39.375) 2  = 1550.39

16-20
  8
16+20/2 =18
= 144
  2.875
8 x  2.875 = 23
(23.00) 2 = 529

21-25
10
21+25/2 =23
= 230
  2.125
10 x 2.125 = 21. 25
(21. 25)2 = 451.56

26-30
  7
26+30/2 =28
= 196
  7.125
7 x 7.125 = 49.975
(49.975) 2  = 2497.50

31-35
  4
31+35/2 =33
= 132
12.125
4 x 12.125 = 48.5
(48.5) 2  =2352.25

36-40
  1
36+40/2 =38
=   38
17.125
1 x 17.125 = 17.125
(17.125) 2  = 293.27

=40

  = 835

=273.6
=10443.92

a) 245.25
*b) 169.73
c) 285.10
d) 261.10

62. In an SSE 202 class of 220 students, Balogun and Bale obtained 70 and 53 scores respectively. The mean score of the class is 65 and the standard deviation is 5. Compute Z-score of Balogun.

*a) +1.0
b) -1.0
c) -2. 0
d) +2.0

63. In an SSE 304 class of 500 students, Daudu and Magaji scored 70 and 53 scores respectively. The mean score of the class is 65 and the standard deviation is 5. Compute the T-Score of Magaji.

a) -34
b) 60
*c) +34
d) -60

64. Which of the following statements best defines evaluation?
*(a) Process through which a value judgment is made
(b) Process of how much a thing is present
(c) Assignment of numbers according to laid down rules
(d) Quantitative description of learners' behaviour

65. Which of these is not a type of evaluation?
(a) Formative evaluation
(b) Summative evaluation
(c) Programme evaluation
*(d) Diagnostic evaluation

66. Evaluation plays the following roles in each phase of instruction EXCEPT
(a) Classification of instructional objectives
*(b) Emigration of students
(c) Determination of students' entry behavior
(d) Assessment of students' performance

67. Summative evaluation is given to the learners
(a) through the instructional process.
*(b) at the end of the instructional process.
(c) at the middle of the instructional process.
(d) at the beginning of the instructional process.

68. Which of the following statements best describes the use of a test?
(a) It is used to assign numbers to performance.
(b) It is used to distribute resources among learners.
(c) It is good for estimating unobservable attitude.
*(d) It is used to verify the presence of an attribute in an individual.

69. Tests that are constructed, trial tested before administration to the target audience, with norm developed for use are referred to as
(a) prognostic tests
(b) teacher made tests
*(c) standardized  tests  
(d) selection tests

70. Classroom tests are NOT used for
*(a) determining students' career difficulties
(b) determining students' learning difficulties
(c) assessment of students' performance
(d) determining students' future abilities

71. Tests used to make decisions for students' suitability for entry into educational institutions  could serve as
(a) administrative function
(b) prognostic function
(c) diagnostic function
*(d) placement purpose

72. In educational measurement, the process of gathering, arranging, analyzing, summarizing and interpreting information is named
(a) frequency distribution table
(b) graphical data 
*(c) statistics
(d) frequency polygon

73. The least used measure of variability is
(a) Variance
*(b) Range
(c) Standard deviation
(d) Quartile deviation

74. Prognostic test is used for
*(a) predicting what learners are able to do in future.
(b) telling the progress of learners during an instruction.
(c) predicting learners ability from the beginning to the end.
(d) predicting the performance of learners repeatedly.

75. A test meant for determining the strengths and weaknesses of the learners in a programme is called 
(a) Prognostic test.
(b) Summative test.
(c) Formative test. 
*(d) Diagnostic test.

76. One of these is not a general principle of test construction
(a) Item banking
(b) Item writing
*(c) Item location
(d) Item editing

77. Teacher made tests are
*(a) not meant for use beyond a particular school.
(b) are used basically for certification of learners.
(c) usually comes at the end of programmes.
(d) not relevant  to teachers specific instructional purpose.

78. Teacher made tests
(a) have the same quality as standardized tests.
(b) are more difficult to pass than standardized tests.
*(c) do not have known indices of validity and reliability.
(d) are usually subjected to a trial test before use.
  
79. A ...test is produced by publishers.
*(a) standardized test
(b) objective test
(c) placement test
(d) Admission test

80. The … scale of measurement uses all the attributes of numbers.     
(a) Ordinal
*(b) Ratio
(c) Numeral
(d) Internal

81. The ordinal scale of measurement has data
(a) with absolute zero level.
*(b) ranked or ordered.
(c) with same interpretation.
(d) in the form of ratio.

82. Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of the scales of measurement from lowest to the highest?
(a) Ordinal, Interval, Ratio and Nominal scale
(b) Ratio, Nominal, Interval and Ordinal scale
*(c) Nominal, Interval, Ordinal and Ratio scale
(d) Interval, Nominal Ratio, and Ordinal scale

83. Lecture theaters or halls at University of Ilorin are named or numbered. What scale of measurement is used?
*(a) Nominal
(b) Ordinal
(c) Interval
(d) Ratio

84. The extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure is known as
(a) Usability
(b) Reliability
(c) Good test
*(d) Validity

85.   Summative evaluation is given
(a) through the instructional process
(b) at the beginning of the programme
*(c) at the end of the programme
(d) at the middle of the instructional process

86. At the beginning of instructional programme, … is given to find out the learners' entry behavior.
*(a) prognostic evaluation
(b) diagnostic evaluation
(c) formative evaluation
(d) summative evaluation

87. To assess the capacity for a particular activity, … is usually administered.
(a) personality test
(b) intelligence test
(c) achievement test
*(d) aptitude test

88.    What is the first step in computing the median?
(a) Add all the values and divide by the number of observation.
*(b) Re- arrange the values in ascending or descending order.
(c) Find the total frequency.
(d) Select the middle value.

89. An item that consists of a declarative statement in which the testee is required to judge as either Yes or No is
(a) multiple choice items
*(b) alternative response
(c) supply item             
(d) interpretive exercise

90. Which of these statements is true about essay tests?
  (a) It promotes memory work among testees.
*(b) It allows testees to show originality and creativity.
(c) It gives room for many questions to be answered.
(d)   It gives room for testees to engage in guessing. 

91. Which of these statement best describes "reliability" of an instrument?
*(a) Measures consistently what the researcher intends to measure.
(b) The values between two measures are highly correlated.
(c) Creates room to have long range of prediction.
(d) Shows relationship between half of a test and the whole test.

92 A type of reliability that involves the use of a parallel test is
(a) test-retest method
(b) internal consistency method    
*(c) equivalence method
(d) scorer reliability.

93. A test blue- print is otherwise called
(a) item difficulty
*(b) table of specification
(c) item discriminating power
(d) test retest

94. A statistical term which is used to describe the number of occurrence of an event or observation is
(a) interval 
(b) distribution
(c) boundary
*(d) frequency

95. All these are statistical terms associated with measures of central tendency EXCEPT
(a) Arithmetic mean
(b) Mode
*(c) Variance
(d) median

96. Which of the following is NOT descriptive statistics?
*(a) Analysis of Variance (ANOVA)
(b) Measures of Central Tendency
(c) Measures of Dispersion
(d) Measures of Correlation

97. The formula for finding item difficulty is
(a)  

*(b)

(c)

(d)

98. 4-option multiple choice items in SSE 202 were administered to 50 students in Faculty of Education, Better by Far University. The results were analyzed based on the 27% of item analysis. The analysis of their responses to items 1 and 2 are listed below. 

Item
Alternative answers

Key

A
B
C
D

H
L
H
L
H
L
H
L

1
4
11
39
17
3
13
4
9
B

Calculate the difficulty index of item 1.
(a) 0.26
(b) 0.36
(c) 0.46
*(d) 0.56

99. 4-option multiple choice items in SSE 202 were administered to 50 students in Faculty of Education, Better by Far University. The results were analyzed based on the 27% of item analysis. The analysis of their responses to items 1 and 2 are listed below. 
Item
Alternative answers

Key

A
B
C
D

H
L
H
L
H
L
H
L

2
6
10
  8
11
5
9
31
20
D

Calculate discriminating power of item 2
(a) 0.11
(b) 0.44
*(c) 0.22
(d) 0.55

100. Distractors perform the following functions in multiple choice items EXCEPT
*(a) to  give problems to testees during the test.
(b) to attract testees who do not know the answer.
(c) have all the features of an answer.
(d) contributes to the quality of test items.

101. What is the mean of the following scores: 86, 74, 63, 62, 59, 54, 54, 50, 47, & 31
(a) 58.0
*(a) 52.6
(c) 59.0
(d) 54.0

102.     Find the mode of these scores: 86, 74, 63, 62, 59, 54, 54, 50, 47, & 31
         (a) 55
         (b) 62
         (c) 47
         *(d) 54

103. Find the median of these scores:  86, 74, 63, 62, 59, 54, 54, 50, 47, & 31
         (a) 62.0
         (b) 57.0
         *(c) 56.5
         (d) 86.0